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Unread 02-01-2012, 09:03 PM   #1
noahidelaws
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On bittul Torah al pi Tanya

In the attached sicha (from here) the Rebbe says that not everyone is zocheh not to be mevateil Torah, i.e., that bittul Torah is unavoidable. How does this fit with "eini mevakeish ela l'fi kochon"?

Also, in Tanya ch. 25, towards the end, it seems to imply that everyone is constantly being nichshal in bittul Torah, and that's why we say the beracha of Selach lanu three times daily. But mimoh nafshach--if it's unavoidable, then why should I ask for mechilah for doing it? Do I ask for mechilah from Hashem for not being a Tzaddik al pi Tanya?

Also, if bittul Torah is a severe aveirah about which it says, as the Alter Rebbe brings in ch. 1, ki devar Havayeh bozoh, R"l, and therefore "habeinoni ein bo afilu ovon bittul Torah," how is it takkeh so that "middas ha'beinoni hi middas kol odom" (Tanya ch. 14, beg.)?

Also, when the Alter Rebbe brings in perek 1 concerning someone who is mevateil Torah (R"l) "ki devar Havayeh bozoh, hikoreis tikoreis," does that mean literally, that anyone who is mevateil Torah at all is chayav koreis? If bittul Torah is unavoidable, then "Lo shovik mar chayi l'chol berya"!
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Unread 02-07-2012, 12:35 PM   #2
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This quote from Tanya, ch. 23, is also relevant to the above question:
Quote:
ובזה יובן למה גדלה מאד מעלת העסק בתורה יותר מכל המצות ואפי' מתפלה שהיא יחוד עולמות עליונים [והא דמי שאין תורתו אומנתו צריך להפסיק היינו מאחר דמפסיק ומבטל בלא"ה].
I.e., for the average person, bittul Torah is so common and virtually a fait accompli that although Torah study would override any obligation of Tefillah, since he will neglect Torah study on some level anyway, he is obligated to davven. This strengthens the question on the Alter Rebbe's words "וא"כ ע"כ הבינוני אין בו אפי' עון ביטול תורה", on the bakoshas selicha in the Amidah as explained in Tanya ch. 25, etc.
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Unread 02-07-2012, 05:41 PM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by noahidelaws View Post
In the attached sicha (from here) the Rebbe says that not everyone is zocheh not to be mevateil Torah, i.e., that bittul Torah is unavoidable. How does this fit with "eini mevakeish ela l'fi kochon"?

Also, in Tanya ch. 25, towards the end, it seems to imply that everyone is constantly being nichshal in bittul Torah, and that's why we say the beracha of Selach lanu three times daily. But mimoh nafshach--if it's unavoidable, then why should I ask for mechilah for doing it? Do I ask for mechilah from Hashem for not being a Tzaddik al pi Tanya?
The amount of BT is avoidable.
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Unread 02-07-2012, 09:19 PM   #4
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Please explain.
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Unread 02-07-2012, 10:27 PM   #5
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Do I ask for mechilah from Hashem for not being a Tzaddik al pi Tanya?
Actually, you could ask a similar question about that: If אין כל אדם זוכה להיות צדיק why משביעים אותו תהי צדיק? How can a person be sworn to do something he can't do? How does הוא יעשה את שלו help for fulfillment of a שבוע if it's ultimately up to 'ה?
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Unread 02-08-2012, 01:19 AM   #6
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Originally Posted by noahidelaws View Post
In the attached sicha (from here) the Rebbe says that not everyone is zocheh not to be mevateil Torah, i.e., that bittul Torah is unavoidable. How does this fit with "eini mevakeish ela l'fi kochon"?
Maybe this is lfi koichon since he can fix it as layed out in that maamar. And the "bakosho" is not to do what he can't but to fix the pgam that he made or the hamshocho that he lost out on or create the lvush that he would have created.

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Also, in Tanya ch. 25, towards the end, it seems to imply that everyone is constantly being nichshal in bittul Torah, and that's why we say the beracha of Selach lanu three times daily. But mimoh nafshach--if it's unavoidable, then why should I ask for mechilah for doing it? Do I ask for mechilah from Hashem for not being a Tzaddik al pi Tanya?
This probably doesn't apply to a בעל עסק, as he only has to do פרק אחד שחרית וערבית as taught in the maamar (though הרהורי עבירה does apply to him and the מאמר רז"ל about that in בבא בתרא seems to be the basis for the Alter Rebbe's statement "עון ביטול תורה שאין אדם ניצול ממנו בכל יום" (as indicated in the maamar סעיף ה). Only for מי שאפשר לו לעסוק בתורה כל היום.

Quote:
Also, if bittul Torah is a severe aveirah about which it says, as the Alter Rebbe brings in ch. 1, ki devar Havayeh bozoh, R"l, and therefore "habeinoni ein bo afilu ovon bittul Torah," how is it takkeh so that "middas ha'beinoni hi middas kol odom" (Tanya ch. 14, beg.)?
About the same בינוני it says in Chapter 1 הבינוני אין בו אפי' עון ביטול תורה, it says in Chapter 12 הרהורי עבירה הקשים מעבירה יכולים לפעול לעלות למוחו ולבלבלו מתורה ועבודה וכמארז"ל ג' עבירות אין אדם ניצול מהן בכל יום הרהור עבירה ועיון תפלה כו (regardless of what it says in Chapter 1). So there is no סתירה. Chapter 25 is talking about what it says in Chapter 12, something different from what it says in Chapter 1.

The question now is not (also) how does that fit with "כל אדם יכול להיות בינוני בכל עת ובכל שעה", rather (only): "why should I ask for mechilah for doing it?"

Another question, if עון ביטול תורה comes from the other 3 as indicated in the maamar, why was סלח לנו instituted only for עון ביטול תורה?
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