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Unread 11-19-2012, 11:01 PM   #1
noahidelaws
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On the need for mirmah

Stupid question. Why didn't Yaakov just tell Yitzchak directly, in Esav's absence, that Esav had sold the birthright to Yaakov, so Yitzchak would lechatchilah give it to Yaakov? Why do it through mirmah?
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Unread 11-20-2012, 09:11 AM   #2
Torah613
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There are discussions in meforshim, that really the sale was not 100% certain, until Eisav conceeded by saying . See for example Chasam Sofer.
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Unread 11-21-2012, 01:51 PM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by noahidelaws View Post
Stupid question. Why didn't Yaakov just tell Yitzchak directly, in Esav's absence, that Esav had sold the birthright to Yaakov, so Yitzchak would lechatchilah give it to Yaakov? Why do it through mirmah?
Reasons given in Chassidus include that the mirmah was a tikkun for chet Adam Harishon which came from mirma of the nachash and that the mirma was necessary to evoke the brocha from Yitzchak in a way of lemallah min hadaas, as explained in Torah Ohr the chassidishe parsha.
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Unread 11-22-2012, 01:07 AM   #4
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Thanks, I knew that, b"H--it's brought in Likutei Sichos. I just wanted to understand the peshat.
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